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8011試験解説 & 8011更新版

PRMIA学習教材には、Xhs1991PDFバージョン、ソフトバージョン、APPバージョンのさまざまなバージョンがあります。コンピューターで勉強するのが好きでも、紙の資料を読むのが好きでも、8011学習資料はPRMIAあなたのニーズを満たすことができます。ほとんどの時間、紙の学習資料を読むことに慣れている場合は、心配を解消できます。 8011試験クイズでは、この分野の顧客のニーズを完全に考慮します。 8011学習教材のバージョンは、お客様がCredit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam学習できるようになっているため、自由時間が十分に活用され、知識を統合できることがよくあります。

Xhs1991のPRMIAの8011試験トレーニング資料は全てのオンラインのトレーニング資料で一番よいものです。我々の知名度はとても高いです。これは受験生の皆さんが資料を利用した後の結果です。Xhs1991のPRMIAの8011試験トレーニング資料を選んだら、１００パーセントの成功率を保証します。もし失敗だったら、我々は全額で返金します。受験生の皆さんの重要な利益が保障できるようにXhs1991は絶対信頼できるものです。

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IT領域での主要な問題が質と実用性が欠くということを我々ははっきり知っています。Xhs1991のPRMIAの8011の試験問題と解答はあなたが必要とした一切の試験トレーニング資料を準備して差し上げます。実際の試験のシナリオと一致で、选択問題（多肢選択問題）はあなたが試験を受かるために有効な助けになれます。Xhs1991のPRMIAの8011「Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam」の試験トレーニング資料は検証した試験資料で、Xhs1991の専門的な実践経験に含まれています。

PRMIA 8011認証試験は、リスクマネージャー、クレジットアナリスト、トレーダー、銀行家、規制当局、コンサルタントなど、適格性要件を満たすすべての専門家に開かれています。候補者は、少なくとも3年間の関連する実務経験、または財務、経済学、会計、またはビジネスの関連学位を取得する必要があります。

PRMIA 8011（Credit and Counterparty Manager（CCRM）Certificate）試験は、クレジットおよびカウンターパーティリスク管理分野で働く専門家向けの認定プログラムです。この試験は、世界中のリスク管理専門家向けのトレーニング、認定、およびネットワーキングの機会を提供する非営利団体であるProfessional Risk Managers' International Association（PRMIA）によって提供されています。 CCRM証明書プログラムは、ダイナミックで複雑な金融環境でクレジットおよびカウンターパーティリスクを効果的に管理するために必要な知識とスキルを専門家に提供することを目的としています。

PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam 認定 8011 試験問題 (Q35-Q40):

質問 # 35
An operational loss severity distribution is estimated using 4 data points from a scenario. The management institutes additional controls to reduce the severity of the loss if the risk is realized, and as a result the estimated losses from a 1-in-10-year losses are halved. The 1-in-100 loss estimate however remains the same.
What would be the impact on the 99.9th percentile capital required for this risk as a result of the improvement in controls?

A. The capital required will increase
B. The capital required will stay the same
C. Can't say based on the information provided
D. The capital required will decrease

正解：A

解説：
This situation represents one of the paradoxes in estimating severity that one needs to be aware of - the improvement in controls reduces the weight of the body/middle of the distribution and moves it towards the tails (as the total probability under the curve must stay at 100%) and the distributionbecomes more heavy tailed. As a result, the 99.9th percentile loss actually increases. instead of decreasing, creating a counterintuitive result. Therefore the correct answer is that the capital required will increase.
If scenario analysis produces such a result, the analyst must question if the 1 in 100 year loss severity is still accurate. If the new control has reduced the severity in the body of the distribution, the question as to why the more extreme losses have not changed should be raised.

質問 # 36
The capital adequacy ratio applied to risk weighted assets for the calculation of capital requirements for credit risk per Basel II is:

A. 12.5%
B. 150%
C. 8%
D. 100%

正解：C

解説：
The capital adequacy ratio, also called the minimum capital requirement for credit risk per Basel II is 8% of risk weighted assets. The other choices are incorrect.

質問 # 37
Which of the following credit risk models focuses on default alone and ignores credit migration when assessing credit risk?

A. The actuarial approach
B. CreditPortfolio View
C. The contingent claims approach
D. The CreditMetrics approach

正解：A

解説：
The correct answer is Choice 'd'. The following is a brief description of the major approaches available to model credit risk, and the analysis that underlies them:
1. CreditMetrics: based on the credit migration framework. Considers the probability of migration to other credit ratings and the impact of such migrations on portfolio value.
2. CreditPortfolio View: similar to CreditMetrics, but adds the impact of the business cycle to the evaluation.
3. The contingent claims approach: uses option theory by considering a debt as a put option on the assets of the firm.
4. KMV's EDF (expected default frequency) based approach: relies on EDFs and distance to default as a measure of credit risk.
5. CreditRisk+: Also called the 'actuarial approach', considers default as a binary event that either happens or does not happen. This approach does not consider the loss of value from deterioration in credit quality (unless the deterioration implies default).

質問 # 38
A bank extends a loan of $1m to a home buyer to buy a house currently worth $1.5m, with the house serving as the collateral. The volatility of returns (assumed normally distributed) on house prices in that neighborhood is assessed at 10% annually. The expected probability of default of the home buyer is 5%.
What is the probability that the bank will recover less than the principal advanced on this loan; assuming the probability of the home buyer's default is independent of the value of the house?

A. Less than 1%
B. More than 1%
C. More than 5%
D. 0

正解：A

解説：
The bank will not be able to recover the principal advanced on this loan if both the home buyer defaults, and the house value falls to less than $1m, ie the price moves adversely by more than $500k, which is $-500k
/$150k = -3.33#. (Note that 150k is the 1 year volatility in dollars, ie $1.5m * 10%).
The probability of both these things happening together is just the product of the two probabilities, one of which we know to be 5%. The other is also certainly a small number, and intuitively it is clear that the probability of both the things happening together will be less than 1%.
For a more precise answer, we can calculate the probability of the house price falling by 3.33 standard deviations by calculating the area under the standard normal curve to the left of -3.33#. This indeed is a very small number (actually equal to NORMSINV(-3.33)=0.00043), which when multiplied by the probability of default of the home buyer at 5% is certainly going to be less than 1%. Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer.

質問 # 39
Which of the following best describes a 'break clause ?

A. A break clause sets out the conditions under which the transaction will be terminated upon non- compliance with the ISDA MA
B. A break clause describes rights and obligations when the derivative contract is broken
C. A break clause gives either party to a transaction the right to terminate the transaction at market price at future date(s)
D. A break clause determines the process by which amounts due on early termination will be determined

正解：C

解説：
A break close, also called a 'mutual put', gives either party the right to terminate a transaction at market price at a given date, or dates in the future. These are usually availed of in longer dated transactions, eg 10 years and over. For example, a 15-year swap might have a mutual put in year 5, and every 2 years thereafter.
All other choices are incorrect.

質問 # 40
......

Xhs1991の8011この驚くほど高く受け入れられている8011試験に適合するには、PRMIA のCredit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam学習教材のような上位の実践教材で準備する必要があります。彼らは時間とお金の面で最良の8011選択です。初心者の場合は、練習教材の学習ガイドから始めてください。当社の製品は、テストエンジンの助けを借りて学習問題を修正します。 Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Examの8011トレーニング準備のすべてのコンテンツは、素人にだまされているのではなく、このエリアのエリートによって作成されています。弊社の優秀なヘルパーによる効率に魅了された数万人の8011受験者を引き付けたリーズナブルな価格に沿ってみましょう。 Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Examのクイズガイドを使用して、難しい難問を解決してください。

8011更新版: https://www.xhs1991.com/8011.html

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