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์ต์ PRM Certification 8020 ๋ฌด๋ฃ์ํ๋ฌธ์ (Q52-Q57):
์ง๋ฌธ # 52
How can a chief risk officer encourage the governing body and executive management team to create a stronger risk culture?
- A. Having a vision of achievable but not excessive ambition.
- B. Balance rewarding success in profitability goals with punishment when there is a failure to achieve goals.
- C. Discourage personal accountability to avoid a blame culture.
- D. Establish a set of objectives that the board and executive team must adhere to.
์ ๋ต๏ผA
์ค๋ช
๏ผ
A Chief Risk Officer (CRO) plays a crucial role in shaping and strengthening the risk culture within an organization. PRMIA defines risk culture as the shared values, beliefs, knowledge, and understanding about risk that drive behaviors within an institution.
Setting a Clear Vision
The CRO should communicate a vision of risk management that aligns with organizational goals while ensuring that risk-taking remains within acceptable limits.
The vision should be achievable and realistic, rather than overly ambitious, which could incentivize reckless risk-taking.
Embedding Risk Awareness into Decision-Making
A strong risk culture ensures that risk considerations are embedded into business decision-making rather than treated as a separate compliance exercise.
This is supported by PRMIA's Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) Framework, which stresses integrating risk management into strategy and operations.
Avoiding a Blame Culture
A risk-aware organization promotes accountability without fear, enabling employees to report risks without retribution.
Option B (Discourage personal accountability to avoid a blame culture) is incorrect because personal accountability is essential for a healthy risk culture.
Avoiding a Strict, Prescriptive Approach
A set of rigid objectives that must be followed by the executive team (Option C) does not foster a dynamic, evolving risk culture.
Instead, risk culture should be flexible and adaptive to emerging risks.
Balancing Incentives and Consequences
While balancing rewards with penalties (Option D) is part of governance, a strong risk culture is not built solely through fear of punishment.
PRMIA emphasizes positive reinforcement, such as linking risk management behaviors to performance evaluations and incentives.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Risk Governance Framework - Discusses the role of leadership in shaping risk culture.
PRMIA Standards on Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) - Covers best practices for embedding risk culture within organizations.
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์ง๋ฌธ # 53
Which of the follow is not included in PRMIA's 10 principles of good governance?
- A. Holding the PRM Designation.
- B. Clear accountability.
- C. Risk appetite.
- D. External validation.
์ ๋ต๏ผA
์ค๋ช
๏ผ
PRMIA's 10 Principles of Good Governance
PRMIA outlines 10 key principles that focus on risk governance, accountability, transparency, and risk management effectiveness.
These principles ensure strong risk governance structures for financial institutions.
Why Answer B is Correct
Holding the PRM Designation (Professional Risk Manager certification) is NOT a governance principle.
While PRMIA promotes risk education, governance principles focus on organizational risk structures, not individual certifications.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Risk appetite.
Correct - PRMIA governance principles include establishing a clear risk appetite.
C . External validation.
Correct - External audits and validation improve governance and risk transparency.
D . Clear accountability.
Correct - Governance principles emphasize clear accountability at all levels of management.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA 10 Principles of Good Governance
Basel Corporate Governance Guidelines for Financial Institutions
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์ง๋ฌธ # 54
Risk Sensitive pricing is required for several good reasons. Which one of the following is not relevant to the Management's evaluation of the correct approach to Risk Sensitive pricing?
- A. To ensure the income targets can be met or exceeded.
- B. To adequately reward the investors for the capital they gave us to put at risk.
- C. To link personal targets to risk-adjusted return requirements would reinforce the desired risk aware, culture.
- D. To avoid the build-up of a skewed quality property portfolio.
์ ๋ต๏ผA
์ค๋ช
๏ผ
Risk-sensitive pricing ensures that financial institutions and businesses properly account for risk in their pricing strategies to maintain stability and sustainability. PRMIA's Risk Pricing and Capital Adequacy Guidelines define the importance of risk-sensitive pricing in ensuring fair compensation for risk exposure and avoiding risk concentration issues.
Step 1: Why Risk-Sensitive Pricing Is Important
Aligns risk with return: Pricing should be designed to reflect the underlying risk and return trade-off.
Protects investors: Investors expect compensation for capital at risk (Option A is correct).
Reinforces risk-aware culture: PRMIA promotes linking incentives to risk-adjusted returns (Option B is correct).
Prevents adverse selection: Proper risk pricing prevents low-quality assets from accumulating (Option C is correct).
Step 2: Why Option D Is Incorrect
Income targets are business-driven, not risk-driven.
Risk-sensitive pricing aims to balance risk and reward, not just maximize revenue.
PRMIA discourages profit-seeking behavior at the expense of risk considerations.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Risk Pricing Guidelines - Defines the principles of risk-sensitive pricing.
PRMIA Risk-Adjusted Return Standards - Stresses linking incentives to risk-aware decisions.
PRMIA Capital Adequacy Framework - Highlights the role of risk-sensitive pricing in portfolio management.
Final Conclusion:
Risk-sensitive pricing is designed to align returns with risk exposure, not simply to meet or exceed income targets, making Option D the correct answer.
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์ง๋ฌธ # 55
For the Barings case study, what external event may have accelerated the discovery of the loss event?
- A. The collapse of Lehman Brothers into bankruptcy in 2002.
- B. The Singapore earthquake of January 17th 1995.
- C. The collapse of Lehman Brothers into bankruptcy m 2008.
- D. The Kobe earthquake of January 17th 1995.
์ ๋ต๏ผD
์ค๋ช
๏ผ
Background of the Barings Case Study
The Barings Bank collapse occurred due to unauthorized derivatives trading by Nick Leeson in Singapore.
Leeson concealed losses, and his trading positions became unmanageable.
How the Kobe Earthquake Affected Barings
On January 17, 1995, the Kobe earthquake caused extreme market volatility.
Leeson's unauthorized trades were highly exposed to the Nikkei 225 index, and the earthquake triggered heavy losses.
The event accelerated the exposure of Leeson's fraudulent activities, leading to Barings' collapse.
Why Answer D is Correct
The Kobe earthquake created market turmoil, forcing Barings to confront its financial position, ultimately revealing the hidden losses.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . The collapse of Lehman Brothers into bankruptcy in 2002.
Incorrect - Lehman Brothers collapsed in 2008, not 2002.
B . The Singapore earthquake of January 17th, 1995.
Incorrect - No significant earthquake occurred in Singapore on that date.
C . The collapse of Lehman Brothers into bankruptcy in 2008.
Incorrect - Barings collapsed in 1995, not related to Lehman Brothers' 2008 failure.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Case Study on Barings Bank Collapse
Basel Committee Principles on Risk Oversight and Fraud Prevention
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์ง๋ฌธ # 56
Which of the Basel Accords, published in 2004, introduced operational risk as a risk subjected to a capital charge?
- A. Basel I
- B. Basel IV
- C. Basel II
- D. Basel III
์ ๋ต๏ผC
์ค๋ช
๏ผ
Introduction of Operational Risk in Basel Accords
Basel I (1988) โ Focused only on credit risk and market risk; operational risk was not yet included.
Basel II (2004) โ Introduced operational risk as a separate category, subject to capital requirements.
Basel III (2010) โ Strengthened capital and liquidity requirements but did not introduce operational risk.
Basel IV (2017, still evolving) โ Adjusts Basel III reforms but does not introduce operational risk as a new category.
Why Answer B is Correct
Basel II (2004) was the first to introduce operational risk as a risk requiring a capital charge.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Basel I
Incorrect - Basel I focused on credit risk and market risk, with no capital requirements for operational risk.
C . Basel III
Incorrect - Basel III strengthened Basel II but did not introduce operational risk.
D . Basel IV
Incorrect - Basel IV refines Basel III but does not introduce operational risk as a new capital charge.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
Basel II (2004) Operational Risk Framework
PRMIA Operational Risk Management Guidelines
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์ง๋ฌธ # 57
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